Why B1 and Not A1?

[k8icu]

Here is a question that has stuck with me for over 30 years and nobody has ever been able to give me an answer that made sense. After all look at the M38 and M38A1. The M38A1 is a totally different vehicle than the M38. Different well everything yet it got a A1 designation but the M37 gets a B1 what gives? Well I've thought about it and thought about it and this is the only explanation I can come up with. Production of the M37 ended in Jan. 1955. Then the B1 production started in Apr. 1958. (Dates provided from link at top of site.) I would have to think that from say Feb 1955 until March 1958, three years laps, that both Chrysler and the military were like contract complete, all done finished. Then the military decided it needed more of the trucks and went back to Chrysler and said we want more trucks made, but with these modification and because the original contract had ended and production had ended three years earlier the new trucks were designated B1 instead of A1. Because in all other MVs A1, A2 etc have been modifications made while the previous model was still in production. This is the only explanation that makes any sense. I know the military doesn't make sense (I was in for 23 years) but, there are procedures that are followed and I have to think that if the changes were made while the truck was in production we would be talking about M37A1s instead of M37B1s.

If any one has a different answer or even has data to prove otherwise I would love to hear it but until then this is my story and I'm sticking to it.

[m-37Bruce]

That makes sense, I like it too!

[HingsingM37]

Hey There K8icu,

Good to hear from you. I never really thought about B1 vs. A1? Your explanation sounds good to me. How is your truck coming along?

Go Browns

[k8icu]

David,

Slower than syrup running up hill in the winter. Can't get time and money to play nice together...lol. Actually I got some wrenching done this summer and hope to get some more done before the snow flies.

Thanks for asking.